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addikaye03

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but something i noticed with sin that may save time, just cros out the sin and the x, your left with 2 numbers, thats the final solution
Wait what? Explain what your saying.

lim (x-->0) (sinx)/x = 1. So you try and get it into a fraction of this so that you can use this property.

This can be proved by L' Hopitals Rule:

lim (x-->0) (sinx)/x Since function is currently indeterminable (0/0) & noting x=/=0

lim(x-->0) (cosx)/1. Now since lim(x-->0) f(x)= f(0) [Limit Law, when continous]

Therefore cos(0)/1= 1 As required
 

pman

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Wait what? Explain what your saying.

lim (x-->0) (sinx)/x = 1. So you try and get it into a fraction of this so that you can use this property.

This can be proved by L' Hopitals Rule:

lim (x-->0) (sinx)/x Since function is currently indeterminable (0/0) & noting x=/=0

lim(x-->0) (cosx)/1. Now since lim(x-->0) f(x)= f(0) [Limit Law, when continous]

Therefore cos(0)/1= 1 As required
the co-efficient of the x's is 1, you get 1/1=1

though as i say, doesn't work for cos but its useful to double check your answer
 

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