rand_althor
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- May 16, 2015
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- 2015
Not sure how to do this. Tried splitting the inequality up into
Last edited:
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Are these the rectangles you are referring to?:I proved both but im not sure abou the equality of the RHS....
Anyways:
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I managed to prove the LH inequality. Now working on the right handed one after I type up my proof.
yes those are the rectangles I am talking about. If
Via negative omission
I'm not seeing the link between that andyes those are the rectangles I am talking about. If
Via negative omission
Thanks! Why do you go from(proof)
The hint is that the integral of 1/root(x) is very similar to root(x). Riemann sums are often useful proving inequalities like this.I'm not seeing the link between that and.
Lol I didn't. I retroactively inserted the proof for the inequality to make it look cleaner. The inequality case is basically the same as the equality case if you ignoreI'm not seeing the link between that and.
Thanks! Why do you go fromto
though? Also, how did you know to use that inequality you proved initially?
I can't get the LHS inequality. I can now see that with the RHS you show that approximating the area under the graph with rectangles gives an area that is lower than the exact integral, but with the LHS I'm still not sure. Could you explain what you mean by your hint?The hint is that the integral of 1/root(x) is very similar to root(x). Riemann sums are often useful proving inequalities like this.
Yes it will be. But since testing n=1 reveals that they are equal we can confidently introduce an equality sign.
I was talking about the RHS.I'm not seeing the link between that and.
Equality case occurs iff n = 1, and geometrically this is the case where we have 0 area (0-width interval), so the "approximation" is equal to the actual area.
Basically, summation and integration are very similar (of course they are, due to how we define integration). So summing (x^r)'s from x = 1 to N or something will have bounds related the form N^{r+1} (can show using area arguments with Riemann sums), except when r = -1, in which case the bounds turn out to of the form ln(N) (expected, as integrating x^(-1) gives log).I can't get the LHS inequality. I can now see that with the RHS you show that approximating the area under the graph with rectangles gives an area that is lower than the exact integral, but with the LHS I'm still not sure. Could you explain what you mean by your hint?
Just so we can see what you wrote while Codecogs isn't working:(proof)