Okay, heres my current thinking (please critisise where wrong)
I know that micro reforms indirectly create income inequality, as those with higher levels of training/skills are paid more, as they are able to be more productive and efficient yadadadad..
Can it still be said taht micropolicies were implemented to reduce income inequality, because by forcing human capital to work more efficiently, they create a higher incentive for employers to hire people, which then reduces unemployment (which is the biggest creator of poverty and inequality?)
Does that make sense?
I know that micro reforms indirectly create income inequality, as those with higher levels of training/skills are paid more, as they are able to be more productive and efficient yadadadad..
Can it still be said taht micropolicies were implemented to reduce income inequality, because by forcing human capital to work more efficiently, they create a higher incentive for employers to hire people, which then reduces unemployment (which is the biggest creator of poverty and inequality?)
Does that make sense?