How would u prove this? (1 Viewer)

eternallyboreduser

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??? Kinda stuck ngl, cant think of any way other than subbing numbers but thats not rlly proving itimage.jpgimage.jpg
 

eternallyboreduser

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induction is the right method. I'd say any other method wouldn't be strong enough to fully prove the inequal. for all real k.
do you mind working it out for me? i just wanna see how it goes lol, also theres a condition that k lies between zero and one
 
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for the specific case of n=2 however u could probably just use the binomial theorem writing 3/4 as 1/2 +1/(2^2)



Hence true for the case that n=2
 
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if you wanted to do the question without induction btw heres the working out:



Notice that by the binomial theorem as:

Now for

Hence,

 
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also i dont think u would be able to apply induction here since 0<k<1 and usually u can only apply induction when k is an integer
 
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if you wanted to do the question without induction btw heres the working out:



Notice that by the binomial theorem as:

Now for

Hence,

i just realised this is invalid since u cant apply the binomial theorem once again...
well another approach u could do is RHS-LHS



Note that and are increasing for all real numbers k
Since 0<k<1, and similarily,
Also, -1<k-1<0, so
Hence

surely i didnt make another error right
 

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i just realised this is invalid since u cant apply the binomial theorem once again...
well another approach u could do is RHS-LHS



Note that and are increasing for all real numbers k
Since 0<k<1, and similarily,
Also, -1<k-1<0, so
Hence

surely i didnt make another error right
Huge KL fan too.
 

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