complex no. problem (1 Viewer)

Faera

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Hey- not sure if this is in the syllabus any more, but:

Use the result (cos@ + isin@)^n = e^(i@) to prove DeMoivre's theorem, namely (cos@ + isin@)^n = cos(n@) + isin(n@).
 

CM_Tutor

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1. e^i@ is not in the syllabus.

2. There is a typo in your question. It should read:

Use the result cos@ + isin@ = e^(i@) to prove ...
 

Faera

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bah @ self. oops.
okay- thanks for that then.
yay! one less thing i need to know!
 

:: ck ::

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thats eulers rule which was in the syllabus a long time ago (not anymore as cm tutor mentioned) :p
 

CM_Tutor

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A pity, in a way, as it makes the proof of De Moivre's theorem two lines long.
 

maniacguy

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While you're at it, prove Euler's rule. (This is trivial if I give you the only hint that springs to mind immediately, so I'm not giving you a hint. Your teacher may or may not have shown it to you)
 

somedude2387

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help!!!

if w is a complex root of z^3 - 1 =0 where w does not equal to 1
show that 1 + w + w^2 = 0 (easy)
and hence evaluate
(1 - w)(1 - w^2)(1 - w^4)(1 - w^8)

help me out
 

McLake

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Originally posted by maniacguy
While you're at it, prove Euler's rule. (This is trivial if I give you the only hint that springs to mind immediately, so I'm not giving you a hint. Your teacher may or may not have shown it to you)
I've seen a proof, it's very nice ...
 

Grey Council

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ha! we hafta prove something which we know nothing about. ^__^

i've seen a proof of it too, but I payed zero attention to it. I'm struggling with normal 4u, thank you very much. I don't think I need extra rules and laws. heh

btw, if your interested in learning about it, its in the coroneos books. Coroneos 4u books ( the old ones ). :)
 

Faera

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oooh, okay- thanks! Ive got those tucked away some where. i'll go take a look.

=)
 

Affinity

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somedude: notice w^4 = w and w^8 = w^2

maniacguy: 'trivial' hmm....
 

CM_Tutor

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Originally posted by maniacguy
While you're at it, prove Euler's rule. (This is trivial if I give you the only hint that springs to mind immediately, so I'm not giving you a hint. Your teacher may or may not have shown it to you)
This was asked as question 8(c) on the Pymble Ladies' College paper of 1999. The question was worth 7 marks, and said:

--- Quote ---

Certain functions may be expressed as n infinite series called Taylor's Series using the equation

f(x) = f(0) + f'(0) * x +f''(0) * x<sup>2</sup> / 2! + ... + f<sup>k</sup>(0) * x<sup>k</sup> / k! + ...

Use this equation to find the Taylor Series for the functions
(i) f(x) = sin x
(ii) f(x) = cos x
(iii) f(x) = e<sup>ix</sup>

Using these series, can you find a relationship between these three given functions?

Write down the value of e<sup>i*pi</sup>

--- Quote ---

The question should really have added the facts that:
1. f<sup>k</sup>(0) means the value of d<sup>k</sup>y/dx<sup>k</sup>, where y = f(x), at x = 0.
2. Calculus on complex functions follows the same rules as calculus on real functions, and so if f(x) = e<sup>ix</sup>,
then f'(x) = i * e<sup>ix</sup>.
 
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Giant Lobster

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damn... first time ive seen this formula. Mad ive learnt something :p

ok lets try do this:

sinx = x - x^3/3! + x^5/5! -x^7/7! + ... + ((-1)^n)*(x^(2n+1))/(2n+1)! as n ---> infinite
cosx = 1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4! - ... + ((-1)^n)*(x^2n)/(2n)! as n ---> infinite

And e is... ahhh Ive worked it out, but i cant be bothered writing it. Its just a combination of cos and sin series. And then u can take out i as a factor from the sin series, and you've just proven euler's thingy :D

hence cis@ = e^ix
hence e^ipi = cis pi = -1

whoa man my first q8! cool!
 

CM_Tutor

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That's great. Now when you see truncated Taylor Series for sin x, cos x and (probably) e<sup>x</sup>, you'll recognise them, like in 1994 4u HSC, Q7(a).

Note also that the 1997 4u HSC, Q 6(a) effectively established the Taylor Series for tan<sup>-1</sup>x, as well as Gregory's series for pi / 4, which is:

pi / 4 = 1 - (1 / 3) + (1 / 5) - (1 / 7) + ...
 

Giant Lobster

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hmmm actually thats the unnecessarily long proof for the euler thing. one can just differentiate and integrate :) 4 lines. "trivial" indeed.
 
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For proving Euler's therom, if I remember the general method of proof properly

Let z = cisx
z' = - sinx + icosx
= i(cisx)
i.e. z'/z = i
ln z = ix + c
c = 0
therefore ln z = ix
z = e^ix
cisx = e^ix
 

CM_Tutor

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Originally posted by Giant Lobster
hmmm actually thats the unnecessarily long proof for the euler thing. one can just differentiate and integrate :) 4 lines. "trivial" indeed.
I never said it was the easiet proof ... :D
 

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